COPYRIGHT KEEN INTERACTIVE 2000
Last Update: 8/5/00
1. What is the port configuration on a Cisco 1603 router?
a. 1 Ethernet, serial port
b. 1 Ethernet and 1 synchronous 56 Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
c. 1 Ethernet and 1 BRI S/T port
d. 1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port
2. What is the total bandwidth available on an ISDN BRI circuit?
a. 256 Kbps
b. 64 Kbps
c. 128 Kbps
d. 56 Kbps
3. What command will show the modem configured on a line?
4. What command set should be used to correctly configure a US Robotics modem with a known modem string on a Cisco access server?
5. How many B channels are available in an ISDN BRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
6. Which of the following points is the boundary for Non-US ISDN circuits?
a. T
b. R
c. S
d. U
7. What command will set up a static route from 172.21.3.0 to 172.21.100.0 given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway address of 172.21.3.1?
8. What command is used to enable the predictor compression algorithm on an interface?
9. Which of the following ISDN channels controls call setup, signaling and call termination?
a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
10. How many slots for network modules or WAN Interface cards are available on a Cisco 3640 router?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
11. What is a DCE?
a. Data Circuit-Terminating Equipment
b. Digital Circuit Equipment
c. Data Circuit Endpoint
d. Digital Circuit-Terminating Endpoint
12. What command will establish a reverse telnet connection to the modem on line 3?
13. What command sets up a backup interface?
14. Which of the following terminal services are provided by Cisco RAS?
a. Telnet/rlogin
b. X.25 PAD
c. LAT
d. TN3270
e. PAP Authentication
15. What command enables ppp encapsulation?
16. What command will enable Multilink PPP on an interface?
17. Which of the following are permanent profiles provided by the Cisco 700 Series router?
a. Standard
b. External
c. Internal
d. LAN
18. Which of the following is used to describe the process of Cisco NAT using a single IP address to represent multiple workstations?
a. Proxy translation
b. Masquerading
c. IP overloading
d. Overloading*
19. Which feature provides the capability for links to terminate at multiple routers with different remote addresses?
a. Fast Etherchannel
b. Multilink ppp
c. ISL
d. Multichassis Multilink PPP
20. What command will establish a terminal session with an IBM host via TN3270 (2)?
21. What is the line number of the CON port?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Last TTY line number plus 1
22. What command will enable Dial-on-Demand routing on an asynchronous interface?
23. Which of the following is true of Frame Relay DLCI?
a. It is a frame sent from the Frame-Relay switch to the destination router when network congestion is detected
b. It is the frame sent from the Frame-Relay network to a router when the network is congested
c. It is the rate at which a Frame-Relay switch agrees to transfer data
d. It is the logical virtual circuit between Customer Equipment and the Frame-Relay network
24. When should modem auto-configuration be used?
a. To be able to configure a modem without sending modem configuration commands
b. To allow modem configuration commands to be sent through a terminal emulator
c. To configure modem devices that are not currently supported by Cisco
d. To allow for the auto-discover of modems
25. What command should be used to change TN3270 directives into dumb terminal commands?
a. ttyhat
b. keymap
c. ansi.sys
d. ttycap
26. What WICs does the Cisco 1602 router support?
a. Serial
b. ISDN BRI S/T, ISDN BRI U, and serial
c. ISDN BRI S/T, and serial
d. ISDN BRI U
27. What portion of a dialer profile is responsible for all the configuration parameters associated with a particular destination?
a. dialer interface
b. dialer manager
c. dialer map class
d. dialer pool
28. Which of the following ISDN elements represents the ISDN terminal equipment?
a. NT2
b. TE1
c. LE
d. NT1
29. What command should be used to specify that the serial line is connected by a non-V.25bis modem using EIA signaling only. Specifically, the DTR signal?
a. dialer string
b. dialer v.25
c. dialer in-band
d. dialer dtr
30. What command is used to enable incoming network connection to asynchronous ports?
31. What is the total bandwidth available on a European ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 1.544 Mbps
b. 2.048 Mbps
c. 4 Kbps
d. 128 Kbps
32. What command will display 12f protocol errors?
33. Which remote access method allows a user to take direct control of a workstation through a dialup line?
a. Remote Virtual Connections
b. Remote-Gateway
c. Remote-Node
d. Remote-Control
34. What command will display information on both B channels of BRI interface 2?
35. Which of the following is an example of Cisco protocol translation?
a. translate ip 172.21.3.4 lat x25 123555222
b. translate ip lat 172.21.3.4 vax11
c. translate ip lat 172.21.3.4 x25 1235552222
d. translate tcp 172.21.3.4 x25 1235552222
36. Which of the following is true of the ISDN S/T reference point?
a. RS-232 connector using pins 2,3,6,20
b. RJ-45 connector using pins 3,4,5,6
c. RJ-45 connector using pins 1,2,7,8
d. V.35 connector using pins 2,3,6,20
37. What is the purpose of implementing a UART?
a. isdn framing
b. store configuration
c. asynchronous port controller
d. synchronous clocking
38. Which of the following memory types is used to hold the router IOS image?
a. ROM
b. Flash
c. RAM
d. NVRAM
39. Which of the following routers supports a BRI connection and would be appropriate for a single user or a small office?
a. Cisco 200
b. Cisco 700
c. Cisco 900
d. Cisco 1000
e. Cisco 1600
40. What command defines the global default pooling mechanism used to supply IP addresses?
41. Which of these points is between the NT1 and LE?
a. R
b. U
c. S
d. T
42. A ______ could be configured to avoid dialing caused by routing updates on a DDR interface.
a. dynamic route
b. static route
c. link state routing protocol
d. route slowdown
43. What command will allow asynchronous protocol features on VTY lines?
44. What IOS feature allows the increase in the interval for routing protocol updates?
a. RIP
b. RTMP
c. Snapshot routing
d. IGRP
45. Which type of line on access servers is typically used to log into the server for configuration purposes?
a. CON
b. TTY
c. VTY
d. AUX
46. What command troubleshoots VPDN operation?
47. What command will create a static route from IPX network 30 to IPX network 50 through the router interface 50.0000.0c07.00c2?
48. Which of the following dialer objects is a group of one or more physical interfaces associated with a specific Dialer Profile?
a. Physical Interface
b. Dialer Map-Class
c. Dialer Interface
d. Dialer Pool
49. Which of the following ISDN channels would be used for HDLC and PPP?
a. C
b. B
c. D
d. A
50. What command sends logging information to a UNIX syslog server?
51. What command is used to set the line code type on an ISDN PRI interface?
52. What are the two types of authentication most commonly used with PPP?
a. CHAP
b. RC4
c. L2F
d. PAP
53. What command would configure your router to bring up an additional interface when the load on the DDR interface exceeds 50% in either direction?
54. What is the term for an ordered pool of physical interfaces used by a dialer
profile?
a. dialer interface
b. dialer manager
c. dialer pool
d. dialer map class
55. What command configures a router to accept On-Demand Routing routes from stub routers?
56. Which of the following points is between the NT1 and NT2 device?
a. T
b. R
c. S
d. U
57. What command verifies Auto Configuration operations?
58. Which of the following memory types is used to hold power-up diagnostics and bootstrap program?
a. ROM
b. Flash
c. NVRAM
d. RAM
59. What bandwidth is available with V.32 bis without compression?
a. 14.4 Kbps
b. 28.8 Kbps
c. 33.6 Kbps
d. 1200 bps
60. What command, when executed on a Cisco access server, will verify the controller for your channelized T1 is running and no alarms have been reported?
61. What commands will display information about open LAT, Telnet, or rlogin connections?
62. What command will configure a local pool of IP addresses?
63. What is the port configuration of a Cisco 1602 router?
a. 1 Ethernet, and 1 BRI S/T port
b. 1 Ethernet, serial port
c. 1 Ethernet, and 1 synchronous 56 Kbps serial port with integrated CSU/DSU
d. 1 Ethernet, 1 FDDI, and 1 BRI U port
64. Which of these services are provided by Cisco NAT?
a. Tcp load distribution
b. Domain name lookup
c. Address resolution
d. Static address translation
65. Which of these dialer objects contains information specific to the call setup?
a. Dialer Interface
b. Dialer Map-Class
c. Physical Interface
d. Dialer Pool
66. What is the total bandwidth available on an ISDN BRI circuit including D channels?
a. 56 Kbps
b. 64 Kbps
c. 128 Kbps
d. 144 Kbps
67. How many ISDN D channels are available in a European ISDN PRI circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
68. Which of these ISDN elements represents the customer premises switching equipment?
a. TE1
b. NT1
c. NT2
d. LE
69. What command sets a low speed interface to asynchronous mode?
70. Which of these commands is similar to the ‘show sessions’ command?
a. where
b. show lines
c. show buffers
d. show interfaces
71. How do you configure Windows 95 to connect as a remote dial-up client?
a. Select My Computer, then select Make New Connection
b. Select Install TCP/IP, then select create PPP connectivity
c. Select My Computer, then select Dialup Networking, then select Make New Connection
d. Select Network Neighborhood, then select Dialup Networking, then select Make New Connection
72. Which of the following are Cisco Access Services?
a. Remote-Node Services
b. Protocol Translation Services
c. Asynchronous Routing Services
d. Remote Control Services
e. Terminal Services
73. What key sequence will switch between sessions if multiple connections are established from a router to a remote host via telnet?
74. What WICs does the Cisco 1601 router support?
a. ISDN BRI S/T, and serial
b. ISDN BRI U
c. ISDN BRI S/T, ISDN BRI U, and serial
d. Serial
75. What are the two primary differences between Dial on Demand Routing and Dial Backup?
a. Dial Backup is used when a primary link goes down
b. Dial on Demand only works with PPP
c. Dial on Demand routing is only used when interesting traffic is received on the interface
d. Dial backup uses interesting traffic to determine when a line goes down
76. Which of the following are ISDN switch types used in North America?
a. basic-net3
b. basic-nil
c. basic-5e22
d. basic-dms100
77. Which type of line on access servers is the same as an asynchronous interface and is typically used for remote-node dial-in sessions?
a. AUX
b. VTY
c. CON
d. TTY
78. What command will create a pool of internal IP addresses to be used by Cisco NAT?
79. What command should be entered to diagnose an integrated modem that may not be functioning properly?
80. Which parameter can be used with a static routing configuration that specifies a route will not be removed, even if an interface shuts down?
a. sticky
b. static
c. nonvolatile
d. permanent
81. Which of these dialer objects are components of a dialer profile?
a. interface map
b. dialer interface
c. dialer map class
d. dialer pool
82. What command will execute a menu named ‘file’ when user Elvis logs in?
83. When the NAT Overloading feature is implemented, one inside global address represents multiple inside local addresses. How is this feature implemented?
a. TCP port numbers are modified
b. Internal addresses are incremented one per user
c. IP address routing tables are modified
d. The QOS field is modified
84. Which of these compressions standards are supported by Cisco IOS Release 10.3?
a. Stac
b. Zip
c. V.32bis
d. Predictor
85. Which dialup networking protocols are supported by Windows 95?
a. RAS
b. PPP
c. Novell NetWare Connect
d. SNA
e. SLIP
86. Which of these points is the boundary for US ISDN circuits?
a. T
b. R
c. U
d. S
87. What is the purpose of DHCP?
a. Resolve the MAC address into an IP address
b. Dynamically boot computers from the network
c. Dynamically assign a MAC address to computers
d. Dynamically assign an IP address to computers
88. What command displays events that are part of NORMAL tunnel establishment or shutdown in VPDN?
89. What command would be used to reset the NAT translations from the translation table?
90. What command is used to configure SPID numbers on a router?
91. Which of the following are types of remote access to network resources?
a. Remote Virtual Connections
b. Remote-Gateway
c. Remote-Control
d. Remote-Node
92. What command will apply a single interface configuration to multiple interfaces?
93. What command is used to set the terminal baud rate on async lines?
94. Which of the following is true of Frame Relay FECN and/or BECN?
a. Logical virtual circuit between Customer Equipment and Frame-Relay network
b. Frame sent from the Frame-Relay network to a router when the network is congested
c. The rate at which a Frame-Relay switch agrees to transfer data
d. Signaling between Customer Equipment and Frame-Relay network responsible for connection management and maintaining status
95. What command string is used to load factory settings on a modem?
a. AT
b. AT&M0
c. AT&F
d. AT&D
96. Which of the following services does Cisco Access Server provide
a. Serves as a protocol translator
b. Servers as a switch
c. Servers as a router
d. Serves as a terminal server
97. What command is used to look at system statistics for all modems installed in an access server?
98. What is the critical advantage of using CHAP instead of PAP authentication?
a. PAP is not supported for PPP authentication
b. PAP will disconnect if authentication fails
c. PAP sends passwords in clear text format
d. Less packets are transmitted to complete authentication when using CHAP
99. How many slots for network modules or WAN Interface cards are available on a Cisco 3620 router?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
100. What effect does the command ‘ppp authentication chap pap callin’ have?
a. This is not a valid command
b. Authentication will be performed for inbound and outbound connections
c. Enables both CHAP and PAP-CHAP authentication is performed before PAP
d. Enables both CHAP and PAP-PAP authentication is performed before CHAP
