a. By default, the highest priority router will regain active status unless the 憇tandby (group_number) submit?command was configured
b. The command 憇tandby (group_number) preempt?will make the highest priority router regain active status
c. Be default, the highest priority router will not regain active status and there are no commands to change this behavior
d. By default, the highest priority router will regain active status and there are not commands to change this behavior
102. What effect does the following access-list fragment have if applied to an interface through which traffic to/from 192.168.10 must pass?
Access-list 1 deny 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
Access-list 1 permit 192.168.10.5 0.0.0.0
a. Traffic to and from host 192.168.10.5 will be permitted and traffic to and from the rest of the subnet will be denied
b. The syntax is incorrect
c. Traffic to the whole subnet-including 192.168.10.5 will be denied
d. Traffic to the whole subnet-including 192.168.10.5-will be permitted
103. Fast ethernet is recommended for use in which parts of the Cisco campus architecture?
a. distribution layer
b. access layer
c. core layer
104. Which of the following are true of full duplex ethernet?
a. The performance advantage of full duplex is more significant in distribution and core layers than in the access layer
b. Full duplex can be used over longer distances than half duplex
c. All ethernet devices support full duplex operation when only two stations are connected
d. Full duplex operation disables collision detection
105. Which of the following is true of spanning tree timers?
a. Timer defaults are based on a switch network diameter of seven
b. Adjustments to timers can be made on any switch
c. The default BPDU hello time is 1 second
d. STP convergence time is typically about 20 seconds
106. Which of the following are true about Inter-Switch Link VLAN transport protocol and IEEE 802.1Q?
a. Both increase the size of frames
b. ISL encapsulates frames with VLAN membership information
c. ISL is Cisco proprietary
d. Both streamline management of networks with multiple switches
107. Which of the following are true of VTP pruning?
a. The command for making VLANs eligible for pruning is 憇et vtp pruneeligible (VLAN_range)? b. Pruning must be enabled using 憇et vtp pruning enable? c. Without pruning all traffic on a VLAN must be transmitted to every switch
d. VTP pruning 憄runes?VLANs from trunks if the VLANs do not appear 慸ownstream?of the transmitting switch
108. When a packet is multicast in a VLAN, to which ports does a switch forward it (assuming that CGMP is not running)?
a. All ports
b. All ports within that VLAN
c. All VLANs
d. The switch does not forward the packet
109. The Catalyst 2900 series switch is most suitable in which parts of the Cisco campus architecture?
a. core
b. distribution layer
c. access layer
110. Which catalyst command defines a VLAN management domain?
a. set vtp
b. set area
c. set vlan
d. set domain
111. What command will set port 5 on module 3 to VLAN 6?
112. Spanning tree protocol puts a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the listening state?
a. No frames are forwarded. No BPDU抯 are heard.
b. Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
c. No frames are forwarded. BPDU抯 are heard.
d. No frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
113. Which of the following is true of Auto RP?
a. It is a proprietary Cisco feature
b. RP candidates are identified by the address of the interface from which they issue their advertisements
c. RP mapping agents use topology information to pick the most centrally located RP candidate as the RP
d. A router that is a candidate to be RP for a group must also be a member of that group
114. A LAN segmented with layer 2 switches has which of the following characteristics?
a. Segmentation occurs at Layer 4 of the OSI model
b. Segmentation occurs at Layer 3 of the OSI model
c. Segmentation occurs at Layer 2 of the OSI model
d. A LAN segmented with layer 2 switches provides fewer users per segment
115. Routers and layer 3 switches perform which of the following functions that cannot be performed at layer 2?
a. multicast support of IGMP
b. forwarding between VLANs
c. forwarding of data between network segments
d. filtering based on addresses
116. How does spanning tree determine which switch is the root?
a. It picks the switch with the highest MAC address
b. It picks the switch with the lowest MAC address
c. It picks the switch with the lowest bridge ID
d. The first bridge to boot is the root
117. Which of these commands is important for device security?
a. access-class
b. set port security
c. distribute-list
d. access-group
118. Which of the following are true of shared tree protocols?
a. They minimize requirements for a router to store state and topology information
b. They are more likely to spread traffic load widely
c. The have a more stable topology than source trees
d. No topology change is needed in a shared tree if the direction of flow reverses
119. What command will set the flow mask type in the MLS-SE to IP-flow when the RP does not have a configured access list?
120. Which of the following are true of multicast IP?
a. A multicast sender does not need to 慿now?the recipients?addresses
b. Multicast IP consumes resources in proportion to the number of hosts served
c. Multicast IP uses a class D address
d. Multicast IP can be either TCP or UDP
121. Which of the following policies are recommended by Cisco for the core of a network?
a. Device access controls
b. No policies needed to optimize speed
c. Route filtering
d. Quality of service policies
122. Which of the following limits the practical size of a LAN or VLAN?
a. The number of ports on a switch
b. Host performance in an environment with many broadcasts
c. The speed of technologies to link networks in different buildings
d. The address space of a subnet
123. Which of the following are true of HSRP hellos?
a. Hellos are multicast
b. Hellos are transmitted by all routers in an HSRP group
c. The active router is declared unavailable and the secondary takes over when 5 hellos have been missed
d. The default hello interval is 3 seconds
124. Which of the following are characteristics of the distribution layer of the Cisco campus architecture?
a. MIB Translation
b. Media translation
c. Shared bandwidth
d. Layer 3 / 4 forwarding
125. Which of the following are true of the 慸ual core?variation of Cisco抯 campus architecture?
a. It is necessary when there are two or more access and distribution layer modules
b. It connects distribution layer routers or layer 3 / 4 switches
c. There should be a link between the core switches with a bandwidth equal to the bandwidth between each core switch and its distribution layer switches
d. It does not scale to very large enterprise networks where a layer 3 core is required
126. What set based command is used to configure the speed of an ethernet interface (port 4, module 1) to 100 mb/s?
127. At what layer of the seven layer OSI model do VLANs occur?
a. Network
b. Datalink
c. Transport
d. Session
128. When is it necessary to configure the RP with VLAN Ids using the 憁ls rp vlan-id (vlan_number)?command?
a. Whenever configuring support for a VLAN on any RP
b. Incorrect syntax
c. Whenever configuring support for a VLAN on an external RP
d. Whenever configuring support for a VLAN on an external RP connected with an access link
129. Which of the following are true of multicast TTL?
a. Maximum TTL value is 15
b. A host can multicast queries for a server and increment the TTL value in each transmission to find the nearest server
c. TTL values can be used to restrict traffic to an administrative domain
d. A router will examine the TTL value of a multicast packet before forwarding it. If the TTL is greater than one it will be forwarded
130. Which of the following are capable of multi-layer switching?
a. Catalyst 2926G with an external router
b. Gigabit SwitchRouter
c. Catalyst 5500 with a Route Switch Module
d. Catalyst 6500 with a Multilayer Switch Module
131. In multi-level switching with an external router, if a switch rewrites the MAC address of a frame, which of the following is true?
a. The switch is performing layer 3 or 4 switching
b. It is impossible to tell with the information given
c. Switches are transparent and don抰 rewrite MAC addresses
d. The external router is performing layer 3 or 4 forwarding
132. Which of the following are true regarding VLAN interface configuration on an external router?
a. The external router must support ISL or it cannot route between VLANs
b. Each VLAN is assigned a separate sub-interface
c. Only one router logical interface requires an IP address
d. The configuration command for assigning a VLAN to a logical interface is 慹ncapsulation isl (vlan_number)?
133. What command will display the multicast routing table for group 190.78.60.1?
134. The Catalyst 5xxx family of switches is suitable for which part of Cisco抯 campus architecture?
a. Access layer
b. Core
c. Distribution layer
135. Which Catalyst 4xxx/5xxx/6xxx command is used to establish switch parameters?
a. set
b. plot
c. show
d. permit
136. What security measure does Cisco suggest in the core layer of their recommended campus architecture?
a. Route filtering
b. Port security
c. None
d. Device security with passwords
137. What command is used to identify adjacent multicast routers?
138. What command sets a switch抯 management domain?
a. set md
b. set interface
c. set domain
d. set vtp
139. Which of the following addresses map to the same MAC address as 228.32.5.6?
a. 228.48.5.6
b. 229.32.5.6
c. 228.160.5.6
d. Cannot determine from the given information
140. What command will apply access-list 5 to remove information about particular subnets from a routing protocol message?
a. access-list 5
b. access-class 5 in
c. access-group 5 in
d. distribute-list 5 in
141. Which of the following correctly matches OSI model layers with the names of data units?
a. Frames are layer 2, packets are layer 4, and segments are layer 3
b. Frames are layer 2, packets are layer 3, and segments are layer 4
c. Frames are layer 3, packets are layer 2, and segments are layer 4
d. Frames are layer 3, packets are layer 4, and segments are layer 2
142. They dynamic trunk protocol is used to negotiate whether ports will be untrunked or trunked and, if trunked, whether ISL or 802.1Q is used. DTP is configured using the 憇et trunk?command. If DTP is set to 慳uto?on a port (ie, with the command 憇et trunk auto? then the port will become a trunk if:
a. The trunk mode of the connected port on the adjacent switch is set to 憂onegotiate? b. The trunk mode of the connected port on the adjacent switch is set to 慸esirable? c. The trunk mode of the connected port on the adjacent switch is set to 憃n? d. The trunk mode of the connected port on the adjacent switch is set to 憃ff?
143. What protocol dynamically specifies the hosts that are subscribed to IP multicast groups? Switches use this information to determine the ports to which multicasts should be forwarded. This protocol is supported by Cisco switches and routers.
a. ICMP
b. VMPS
c. CGMP
d. ICBM
144. Which of the following are true of IGMP?
a. IGMP v2 is the default mode for IOS 11.1 and later
b. IGMP v1 routers ignore IGMP v2 leave messages
c. 慡how ip igmp interface?will show the IGMP version used on each multicast interface
d. IGMP v2 is backward compatible with version 1
145. To enable MLS on an external RP the command 憁ls rp [ip|ipx]?must be used. Which of the following are true?
a. The command must be entered globally
b. The syntax of the command is incorrect
c. The command must be entered on each interface (untrunked) or sub-interface (trunked) which will connect with an MLS-SE equipped switch
d. IPX support was added in IOS 12.0
146. Which of the following are true of gigabit ether?
a. 1000BaseSX has a range of 400m
b. 1000BaseSX has a range of 260m
c. 1000BaseT has a range of 100m
d. 1000BaseLX has a range of 3km
147. Which of the following are true about the RPs used by an MLS-capable switch?
a. Support from an internal RP does not need to be configured
b. The switch command 慶lear mls include 176.32.1.1?will remove support from an RP at 176.32.1.1
c. The switch will learn about external RPs and start using them based on information in the MLSP
d. The switch command 憇how mls include?can be used to show which RPs are supporting the switch
148. Which 憇et based?command is used to erase a parameter?
a. show
b. delete
c. clear
d. set
149. How is PIM protocol independent?
a. PIM means 慞robabilistic Iteration Masking,?not 慞rotocol Independent Multicast? b. PIM multicast networks use topology information provided by an routing protocol
c. PIM multicast networks carry multicast TCP, UDP, ICMP, etc.
d. PIM multicast networks support multicast IP and IPX
150. Assuming a segment only provides connectivity to user workstations, when does an IGMP v1 router stop delivering multicast to a segment?
a. When the last host in the router抯 multicast group table sends a leave message
b. When a host leaves a group, an IGMP v1 router sends a group leave message. The router then queries the group, and if no members respond, the router stops delivering the multicast
c. An IGMP v1 router sends periodic queries. If there is not response, it stops carrying the group.
d. The hosts send periodic membership messages. If none are received by an IGMP v1 router over a defined period, the router stops carrying the multicast.
151. Assume port 1 on module 5 is connected to a port on another catalyst switch. Enter the command to make the port attempt to establish a trunk carrying VLANs 5 and 6 (the trunk should only be established if the remote switch agrees). The switches should negotiate the VLAN identification method used on the trunk.
152. Which of the following are true about port priorities and the 憄ortvlanpri?command?
a. Adjusting VLAN priority is a recommended technique for load balancing
b. The correct syntax for setting port vlan priority is 憇et spantree portvlanpri (module_number)/(port_number) (vlans) (priority)? c. The lowest priority port in a VLAN always becomes the designated port
d. Legal priority values range from 0 to 63
153. Compared to bridging, layer 2 switching has which of the following characteristics?
a. Less flexibility
b. Lower latency
c. Performs the same function but bridging and switching are implemented differently
d. Switching is software based and bridges are implemented in hardware
154. What security measures does Cisco suggest in the distribution layer of their recommended campus architecture?
a. Route filtering
b. None recommended
c. Password device security
d. Port security
155. Which of the following are true of layer 4 internetworking?
a. It is based on IP, IPX, or AppleTalk source and destination addresses
b. It requires a larger cache than layer 3 switching/routing
c. It can be used to prioritize traffic by application
d. It is based on layer 3 source and destination addresses and port numbers
156. Which of the following are true of 100BaseT4 ethernet?
a. 100BaseT4 operates over Cat5 cable
b. 100BaseT4 uses four pairs
c. 100BaseT4 can support full duplex operation
d. 100BaseT4 operates over category 3 cable
157. What is the maximum distance achievable between ethernet nodes on multimode fiber?
a. 1000 meters
b. 2 km
c. 25 km
d. 35 km
158. What command is used to filter the routes advertised or received in a routing protocol message?
a. distribute-list
b. network
c. access-class
d. access-group
159. What command will enable users logged in at privilege level 3 to execute the command 憇et spantree enable all?
160. What command would be used to determine the speed an duplex setting of port 6 on module 1?
161. Which command would define a VLAN in all switches in a management domain?
a. set vlan
b. set domain
c. set area
d. set vtp
162. Spanning tree protocol puts a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the blocking state?
a. Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
b. No frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
c. No frames are forwarded. BPDU抯 are heard.
d. No frames are forwarded. No BPDU抯 are heard.
163. Which of the following is true of HSRP?
a. The virtual MAC address used by an HSRP group is the MAC address of the router with the highest HSRP priority, whether it is active or not
b. Hosts served by an HSRP group use the group抯 virtual IP address as their default router
c. The HSRP group router with the numerically lowest HSRP priority becomes the active router
d. An HSRP group can contain only two routers
164. Which of the following are true about Backbone Fast?
a. The syntax for enabling Backbone Fast is 憇et spantree backbonefast? b. It should only be enabled on distribution and core layer switches
c. Backbone Fast works by early detecting and confirming failures using inferior BPDUs and the Route Link Query BPDU
d. It can reduce reconvergence times to under 5 seconds
165. Which of the following are true about the selection of root ports and the decision to make some ports blocking?
a. If several paths have the same cost, STP randomly selects which will be the root port
b. If one port has its priority value set to 65 535 and the other ports are left at their default value, that port will be the root port
c. Port priority can be set with the 憇et spantree portpri (port_number)?command
d. The port with the lowest cost to the root is made the root port. Cost is defined as the sum of the costs of each link traversed to reach the root bridge.
166. Which of the following is a characteristic of Cisco抯 dynamic VLANs?
a. A switch supporting dynamic VLANs assigns a port to a VLAN based on the MAC address of the host attached to the port
b. All VLANs are dynamic
c. Each port is specifically assigned to a VLAN
d. A dynamic port may be a member of more than one VLAN at a time
167. Which of the following is true about the Forward Delay timer?
a. Forward Delay can be set on any switch
b. The Forward Delay default value is calculated by the switch and is based on network diameter
c. The time a port spends in the 憀earning mode?is set by Forward Delay
d. The total time a port spends in 憀earning?and 憀istening?states is the Forward Delay
168. Which of the following are advantages of LAN segmentation using layer 2 switches?
a. Fewer Collisions
b. More bandwidth per user
c. Reduced routing table size
d. Larger packet size
169. In which layer of Cisco抯 campus architecture is 10BaseT ethernet recommended?
a. Distribution
b. None
c. Access
d. Core
170. Spanning tree protocols put a port in one of 5 states. Which of the following is true of the disabled state?
a. No frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
b. Frames are forwarded. Learning addresses.
c. No frames are forwarded. No BPDU抯 are heard.
d. No frames are forwarded. BPDU抯 are heard.
171. The command line interface on which of the following switches uses 憇et?and 慶lear?to change configuration?
a. Catalyst 6xxx
b. Catalyst 5xxx
c. Catalyst 29xx XL
d. Catalyst 4000
172. Which of the following are characteristics of broadcasts?
a. A server transmitting a broadcast does not need to 慿now?the recipient抯 address
b. Broadcasts consume resources in proportion to the number of hosts served
c. Broadcasts can be either TCP or UDP
d. Broadcasts must be processed by all hosts that 揾ear?them
173. What command will age out normal cache entries in 510 seconds?
174. What is 慴roadcast control?
a. It is inherently provided by switches because VLAN抯 are a broadcast domain
b. A configurable limit to how many broadcasts per second a LANE BUS will handle
c. A configurable limit on broadcasts per second forwarded from any one port
d. Broadcast control is not a Cisco switch concept
175. How many MAC addresses can be supported by default on a single Catalyst switch port?
a. 1
b. 32
c. 64
d. 132
Answer Key:
1. A,B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C,D
6. D
7. B
8. set port duplex 5/4 half
9. A,D
10. B
11. A,D
12. Show mis entry destination 208.67.77.3
13. A,B
14. A,C
15. C
16. B
17. A,E
18. C
19. C,D
20. B,C
21. A,D
22. D
23. A,B,C
24. A,D
25. ip pim sparse-dense-mode
26. show vlan
27. B,C
28. A,C,D
29. D
30. ping 105.77.27.3
31. ip pim send-rp-announce loopback 0
32. A,B,C
33. A,C
34. C
35. C
36. B,C
37. B,C,D
38. B
39. A,C
40. B,D
41. A: IOS based switch, B: router, C: set based switch
42. set interface sc0 down
43. C
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. C
49. B,D
50. B
51. A,D
52. show module
53. D
54. B
55. set vtp domain corp mode client
56. set cgmp enable
57. B,D
58. A,B
59. B
60. A,B,C
61. A,B,D
62. A
63. D
64. A,D
65. A,D
66. debug standby
67. A,C
68. A,D
69. A
70. B
71. ip http server and ip http authentication tacacs
72. A,B
73. C
74. B
75. A,B,D
76. B
77. description server
78. A
79. A
80. B,C
81. B,D
82. A
83. A,D
84. A,B,D
85. ip pim sparse-mode
86. show vtp domain
87. D
88. E
89. A,C
90. duplex full
91. A
92. set port name 2/10 central
93. A
94. show mls entries rp 18.64.202.1
95. set mls fastagingtime 32 3
96. B
97. C,D
98. A,C
99. A,C
100. set spantree enable 4/2
101. B
102. C
103. A,B,C
104. A,B,D
105. A
106. A,B,C
107. A,B
108. B
109. B,C
110. A
111. set vlan 6 3/5
112. D
113. A
114. C,D
115. A,B
116. C
117. A
118. A,C,D
119. set mls flow full
120. A,C
121. A,D
122. B
123. A,D
124. B,D
125. A,B,D
126. Set port speed ?100
127. B
128. D
129. C
130. C,D
131. A
132. B,D
133. show ip mroute 190.78.60.1
134. A,B,C
135. A
136. D
137. show pim neighbor
138. D
139. B,C
140. D
141. C
142. B
143. C
144. B,C
145. A,C,D
146. B,C,D
147. A,B
148. C
149. B
150. C
151. set trunk 5/1 desirable 5-6 negotiate
152. A,D
153. B,C
154. A,C
155. B,C,D
156. A,B,D
157. B
158. A
159. privilege configuration level 3 set spantree enable all
160. show port 1/6
161. A
162. C
163. B
164. A
165. C,D
166. A
167. C
168. A,B
169. C 170. C
171. A,B,D
172. A,D
173. set mls agingtime 510
174. C
175. D
